Sample Papers
Previous Year Papers
Syllabus
EXAM SYLLABUS
The NDA & NA (II) 2026 Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) consists of two written papers: Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test (GAT) (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview/Intelligence and Personality Test (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers topics such as Algebra, Matrices & Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical Geometry, Differential and Integral Calculus, Vector Algebra, Statistics and Probability. The GAT is divided into English (200 marks) and General Knowledge (400 marks). The English section covers Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension and Usage, while the General Knowledge section includes Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Events. The complete selection process carries 1,800 marks, comprising 900 marks for the Written Examination and 900 marks for the SSB stage.
| Name of Test | Topic | Weightage |
| Mathematics | Algebra | 20 Q |
Matrices & Determinants | 10 Q | |
Trigonometry | 20 Q | |
Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions | 16-20 Q | |
Differential Calculus | 25 Q | |
Integral Calculus and Differential Equations | 20 Q | |
Vector Algebra | 10 Q | |
Statistics and Probability | 10 Q | |
| General Ability Test | English | 50 Q |
General Knowledge : | 8-10 Q | |
History, Freedom & Movement, Geography | 20 Q | |
Current Events | 10 Q | |
Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) | 35-40 Q |
MATHEMATICS DETAILED SYLLABUS
The detailed syllabus for Mathematics, along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below:
| Topic | Topic Description | Topic Example | Topic Difficulty Level |
| Algebra | Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. | If one of the roots of the equation 2x2 + ax +b = 0 is 2, then what is (a - b) equal to? If 6x-5y = 13 , 7x + 2y = 23 , then 11x + 18 y =? | 10+2 level |
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications. | 10+2 level | ||
| Matrices & Determinants | Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear |
EXAM SYLLABUS
The NDA & NA (II) 2026 Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) consists of two written papers: Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test (GAT) (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview/Intelligence and Personality Test (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers topics such as Algebra, Matrices & Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical Geometry, Differential and Integral Calculus, Vector Algebra, Statistics and Probability. The GAT is divided into English (200 marks) and General Knowledge (400 marks). The English section covers Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension and Usage, while the General Knowledge section includes Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Events. The complete selection process carries 1,800 marks, comprising 900 marks for the Written Examination and 900 marks for the SSB stage.
| Name of Test | Topic | Weightage |
| Mathematics | Algebra | 20 Q |
Matrices & Determinants | 10 Q | |
Trigonometry | 20 Q | |
Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions | 16-20 Q | |
Differential Calculus | 25 Q | |
Integral Calculus and Differential Equations | 20 Q | |
Vector Algebra | 10 Q | |
Statistics and Probability | 10 Q | |
| General Ability Test | English | 50 Q |
General Knowledge : | 8-10 Q | |
History, Freedom & Movement, Geography | 20 Q | |
Current Events | 10 Q | |
Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) | 35-40 Q |
MATHEMATICS DETAILED SYLLABUS
The detailed syllabus for Mathematics, along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below:
| Topic | Topic Description | Topic Example | Topic Difficulty Level |
| Algebra | Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. | If one of the roots of the equation 2x2 + ax +b = 0 is 2, then what is (a - b) equal to? If 6x-5y = 13 , 7x + 2y = 23 , then 11x + 18 y =? | 10+2 level |
Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and their applications. | 10+2 level | ||
| Matrices & Determinants | Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear | 10+2 level | |
| Trigonometry | Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric | If A= 18º then what is the value of 4 Sin2A + 2 Sin A? What is the value of (1080º) ? From the top of a building of height “h” meter, the angle of depression of an object on the ground is "A". What is the distance (in meter) of the object from the foot of the building? | 10+2 level |
| Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimensions | Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic Point in a three-dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points Direction Cosines and direction ratios, Direction Cosines and direction ratios | What is the sum of the squares of direction cosines of the line joining the points (1,2,-3) & (-2, 3, 1) ? The angle of elevation of a tower at a level ground is 90º. The angle of elevation becomes "A" . when moved 2m towards the tower. If the height of tower is 1m, then what is "A" equal to? Two poles are 12m and 4m high. The line joining their tips makes an angle of 45º with the horizontal. What is the distance between the poles? | 10+2 level |
| Differential Calculus | Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima | What is the solution of differential equation y= ln x - ln y ?
| 10+2 level |
| Integral Calculus and Differential Equations | Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—applications. | Find the general solution to the differential equation. ![]() ![]() | 10+2 level |
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order Application in problems of growth and decay. | 10+2 level | ||
| Vector Algebra | Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems. | If a, b and c are unit vectors, then |a - b|2 + |b - c|2 + |c - a|2 does not exceed?
| 10+2 level |
| Statistics and Probability | Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon— Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression. | The mean of 9 observations is 16. One more observation is included and the new mean becomes 17. What is the 10th observation? The average of x numbers is y and average of y numbers is x. Then, What is the average of all the numbers taken together? The mean weight of 34 students of a school is 42 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the mean rises by 400 g. find the weight of the teacher in kg | 10+2 level |
Probability : Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binomial distribution. | What is the probability that a leap year selected at random contains 53 Saturdays? Three Discs are thrown. What is the probability that the same number will appear on each of them? Out of 400 first year students, 150 passes in first semester and 220 passed in the second semester. If 130 did not pass in either semester, how many passed in both semesters? | 10+2 level |
GENERAL ABILITY TEST DETAILED SYLLABUS
The detailed syllabus for General Ability Test along with Topic Description, Topic Example & Topic Difficulty, is given below :-
| Topic | Topic Description | Topic Example | Topic Difficulty Level |
| English | Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s proficiency in English. | Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word. | |
| Section ‘A’ (Physics) | Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density, and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer. | If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air?
Which one of the following is the value of 1 kWh of energy converted into joules? Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob? Two convex lenses with power 2 dioptre are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 x 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun? | 10+2 level |
Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of Sound waves and their properties, Simple Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye. | |||
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. | |||
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Nonconductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of | |||
General Principles in the working of :- Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, | |||
| Section ‘B’ (Chemistry) | Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and Simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). | The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution? The proposition 'equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure' is known as Zinc is used to protect Iron from corrosion because zinc is | 10+2 level |
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizer —Natural and Paints, Safety Matches and Gun- Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency. | |||
| Section ‘C’ (General Science) | Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants an Animals. | Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein? | 10+2 level |
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention. | |||
Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. | |||
| Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.) | A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. | Who among the following is the author of the book The Indian Struggle, 1920 - 1934? Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866? Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq? | 10+2 level |
Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and | |||
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Impact of Science Concept of one World, United Nations, Socialism and Communism. Role of India | |||
| Section ‘E’ (Geography) | The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. | The Coriolis effect is the result of Which one of the following is not an igneous rock? Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover? Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat? Where is Mekong Delta located? | 10+2 level |
Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition | |||
Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation | |||
Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World. Regional Geography of India Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities | |||
Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India. | |||
| Section ‘F’ (Current Events) | Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports. | In the recently concluded elections in 1 December 2020, Faustin-Archange Touadéra has won a second term in office as President of one of which country? | Based on Past 5-6 Months |
Format
EXAM PATTERN
The first stage of the NDA selection process is a written exam and the second stage is an Interview round. It is also followed by a detailed medical examination, which the candidates must pass. Below, you will find all details regarding the different stages in the NDA selection:
Stage 1 - Written Exam
Stage 2 - Interview with SSB
Stage 3 - Medical Examination
Stage 4 - Document Verification
| Test Mode | Name of Test | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| Objective Type Offline Pen & Paper Based Test | Mathematics | 120 Q | 300 Marks | 150 Minutes |
General Ability Test | 150 Q | 600 Marks | 150 Minutes | |
Total | 270 Q | 900 Marks | 300 Minutes |
Note :- Examination for Mathematics & General Ability Test will be held separately. A break will be provided to the candidates between Paper- I and Paper- II
Written Exam
According to the NDA selection process, the candidates will first have to appear for a written exam. It will be a three-hour, 900-mark objective test comprising of two sections - Mathematics and General Ability. Only the candidates who secure the minimum cut-off marks will be selected for the next stage of the recruitment process.
Document Verification
An essential component of the NDA selection process is document verification and submission. At the time of the interview, the selected candidates are required to bring their documents for verification.
1. Proof of education - 10th or 10+2 certificate.
2. Caste certificate for applicable candidates.
3. Proof of identity.
4. Proof of address.
SSB Interview
Stage 2 of the NDA selection process involves the interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB) for all the candidates qualifying for NA and NDA posts. If you clear the written test, your interview call letter will reach you with all the details regarding the interview date, time, and venue.
Note:
1. That the final recruitment under the NDA selection process will be merit-based. The performance of candidates in the written test and interview will be considered for the same.
2. Candidates applying for the Air Force will have to qualify for the Pilot Aptitude Test (PAT) and Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) in order to be considered for final selection.
3. The SSB interview process takes place over a duration of 4-5 days.
Medical Examination
Candidates who are shortlisted in the SSB interview round are recommended by the authorities for a detailed medical checkup. This is an integral part of the NDA selection process, for which the selected candidates have to appear at the Military Hospital. Here are some things you should know about the NDA medical test.
1. As a part of the NDA selection process, a medical examination will be conducted at the Military Hospital by a Board of Service Medical Officers.
2. The final selection of the candidate in the NDA will depend on whether they are declared fit for the medical examination.
3. For female candidates, a detailed gynaecological, obstetric, and menstrual history will be required in addition to the regular details.
4. After the candidates get through the NDA selection process, they are trained at the National Defence Academy under their respective branches (Army, Navy, or Air Force).
Mode Of Examination
The examination will be held as an offline Pen & Paper based Test. Both sections will contain only Objective type Multiple Choice Questions.
Medium Of Exmination
Questions Paper will be Bilingual in nature
questions will be available in English as well as in Hindi.
Marking Scheme
Sections of the Test
1. Mathematics
2. General Ability Test
Questions from the above-mentioned sections will be asked in NDA/ NA Examination where, Mathematics will comprise 120 Questions of total 300 Marks and General Ability test will comprise 150 Questions of total 600 Marks, summing up to 270 Questions and 900 Marks
Marking Scheme Highlights
1. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
...EXAM PATTERN
The first stage of the NDA selection process is a written exam and the second stage is an Interview round. It is also followed by a detailed medical examination, which the candidates must pass. Below, you will find all details regarding the different stages in the NDA selection:
Stage 1 - Written Exam
Stage 2 - Interview with SSB
Stage 3 - Medical Examination
Stage 4 - Document Verification
| Test Mode | Name of Test | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
| Objective Type Offline Pen & Paper Based Test | Mathematics | 120 Q | 300 Marks | 150 Minutes |
General Ability Test | 150 Q | 600 Marks | 150 Minutes | |
Total | 270 Q | 900 Marks | 300 Minutes |
Note :- Examination for Mathematics & General Ability Test will be held separately. A break will be provided to the candidates between Paper- I and Paper- II
Written Exam
According to the NDA selection process, the candidates will first have to appear for a written exam. It will be a three-hour, 900-mark objective test comprising of two sections - Mathematics and General Ability. Only the candidates who secure the minimum cut-off marks will be selected for the next stage of the recruitment process.
Document Verification
An essential component of the NDA selection process is document verification and submission. At the time of the interview, the selected candidates are required to bring their documents for verification.
1. Proof of education - 10th or 10+2 certificate.
2. Caste certificate for applicable candidates.
3. Proof of identity.
4. Proof of address.
SSB Interview
Stage 2 of the NDA selection process involves the interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB) for all the candidates qualifying for NA and NDA posts. If you clear the written test, your interview call letter will reach you with all the details regarding the interview date, time, and venue.
Note:
1. That the final recruitment under the NDA selection process will be merit-based. The performance of candidates in the written test and interview will be considered for the same.
2. Candidates applying for the Air Force will have to qualify for the Pilot Aptitude Test (PAT) and Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) in order to be considered for final selection.
3. The SSB interview process takes place over a duration of 4-5 days.
Medical Examination
Candidates who are shortlisted in the SSB interview round are recommended by the authorities for a detailed medical checkup. This is an integral part of the NDA selection process, for which the selected candidates have to appear at the Military Hospital. Here are some things you should know about the NDA medical test.
1. As a part of the NDA selection process, a medical examination will be conducted at the Military Hospital by a Board of Service Medical Officers.
2. The final selection of the candidate in the NDA will depend on whether they are declared fit for the medical examination.
3. For female candidates, a detailed gynaecological, obstetric, and menstrual history will be required in addition to the regular details.
4. After the candidates get through the NDA selection process, they are trained at the National Defence Academy under their respective branches (Army, Navy, or Air Force).
Mode Of Examination
The examination will be held as an offline Pen & Paper based Test. Both sections will contain only Objective type Multiple Choice Questions.
Medium Of Exmination
Questions Paper will be Bilingual in nature
questions will be available in English as well as in Hindi.
Marking Scheme
Sections of the Test
1. Mathematics
2. General Ability Test
Questions from the above-mentioned sections will be asked in NDA/ NA Examination where, Mathematics will comprise 120 Questions of total 300 Marks and General Ability test will comprise 150 Questions of total 600 Marks, summing up to 270 Questions and 900 Marks
Marking Scheme Highlights
1. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
2. If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above for that question.
3. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
Eligibility
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
The eligibility criteria are outlined in Section 3 of the examination notice. Candidates must satisfy all conditions related to nationality, age, sex, marital status, and educational qualifications. Admission is provisional until verification of original documents after qualifying for the Interview/Personality Test. Below is a structured breakdown:
Nationality
A candidate must be an unmarried male or female and one of the following:
A citizen of India.
A subject of Nepal.
A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, or East African countries (Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia) or Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Notes:
For categories other than Indian citizens (except Gorkha subjects of Nepal), a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India is required.
Gorkha subjects of Nepal do not need a certificate of eligibility.
Age Limits, Sex, and Marital Status
Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than 01st January 2008 and not later than 01st January 2011 are eligible.
Date of Birth Verification:
Accepted based on the Matriculation/Secondary School Leaving Certificate, or an equivalent certificate recognized by an Indian University, or an extract from a University Register of Matriculates (certified by the university authority).
No other documents (e.g., horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporations, service records) are accepted.
The date entered in the application is final; no changes are allowed post-submission.
If any discrepancy is found later, disciplinary action may be taken.
Candidates must not marry until completing full training. Marriage after application submission or during training leads to disqualification and liability to refund government expenditure.
Educational Qualifications
For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: 12th Class pass under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or University.
For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy, and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at Indian Naval Academy: 12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or University.
Additional Provisions:
Candidates appearing in the 12th Class (under 10+2 pattern or equivalent) can apply provisionally.
Those who qualify the SSB interview but cannot produce original Matriculation/10+2 certificates must submit self-attested photocopies to the specified authorities (Directorate General of Recruiting for NDA, Naval Headquarters for NA) by December 10, 2026. Failure leads to cancellation.
Original certificates from institution principals are acceptable if boards/universities have not issued them yet; certified true copies or photostats are not.
In exceptional cases, the Commission may consider a candidate educationally qualified if their qualifications justify admission (in the Commission's opinion).
Candidates in 11th Class are not eligible.
Candidates debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any commission in Defence Services are ineligible.
Candidates who previously failed CPSS/PABT are now eligible for Air Force Ground Duty branches.
Other General Notes on Eligibility
Physical standards and other conditions (e.g., medical fitness) are assessed during the SSB process, but the above are the primary entry criteria.
Vacancies are separate for males and females, with merit lists prepared accordingly.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
The eligibility criteria are outlined in Section 3 of the examination notice. Candidates must satisfy all conditions related to nationality, age, sex, marital status, and educational qualifications. Admission is provisional until verification of original documents after qualifying for the Interview/Personality Test. Below is a structured breakdown:
Nationality
A candidate must be an unmarried male or female and one of the following:
A citizen of India.
A subject of Nepal.
A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, or East African countries (Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia) or Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Notes:
For categories other than Indian citizens (except Gorkha subjects of Nepal), a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India is required.
Gorkha subjects of Nepal do not need a certificate of eligibility.
Age Limits, Sex, and Marital Status
Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than 01st January 2008 and not later than 01st January 2011 are eligible.
Date of Birth Verification:
Accepted based on the Matriculation/Secondary School Leaving Certificate, or an equivalent certificate recognized by an Indian University, or an extract from a University Register of Matriculates (certified by the university authority).
No other documents (e.g., horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporations, service records) are accepted.
The date entered in the application is final; no changes are allowed post-submission.
If any discrepancy is found later, disciplinary action may be taken.
Candidates must not marry until completing full training. Marriage after application submission or during training leads to disqualification and liability to refund government expenditure.
Educational Qualifications
For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: 12th Class pass under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or University.
For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy, and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at Indian Naval Academy: 12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics under the 10+2 pattern of School Education, or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or University.
Additional Provisions:
Candidates appearing in the 12th Class (under 10+2 pattern or equivalent) can apply provisionally.
Those who qualify the SSB interview but cannot produce original Matriculation/10+2 certificates must submit self-attested photocopies to the specified authorities (Directorate General of Recruiting for NDA, Naval Headquarters for NA) by December 10, 2026. Failure leads to cancellation.
Original certificates from institution principals are acceptable if boards/universities have not issued them yet; certified true copies or photostats are not.
In exceptional cases, the Commission may consider a candidate educationally qualified if their qualifications justify admission (in the Commission's opinion).
Candidates in 11th Class are not eligible.
Candidates debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any commission in Defence Services are ineligible.
Candidates who previously failed CPSS/PABT are now eligible for Air Force Ground Duty branches.
Other General Notes on Eligibility
Physical standards and other conditions (e.g., medical fitness) are assessed during the SSB process, but the above are the primary entry criteria.
Vacancies are separate for males and females, with merit lists prepared accordingly.
Schedule
IMPORTANT DATES
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) publishes the NDA & NA examination dates for both sessions through its official examination calendar. The NDA 2026 schedule was announced well in advance, helping candidates plan their preparation effectively. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, the official notification and application form were released on 20 May 2026, and the last date to apply was 9 June 2026. The NDA II 2026 written examination is scheduled to be conducted on 13 September 2026.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 20/05/2026 |
NDA I Appication Period | 20/05/2026 - 09/06/2026 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | 03/09/2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 13/09/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |
IMPORTANT DATES
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) publishes the NDA & NA examination dates for both sessions through its official examination calendar. The NDA 2026 schedule was announced well in advance, helping candidates plan their preparation effectively. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, the official notification and application form were released on 20 May 2026, and the last date to apply was 9 June 2026. The NDA II 2026 written examination is scheduled to be conducted on 13 September 2026.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 20/05/2026 |
NDA I Appication Period | 20/05/2026 - 09/06/2026 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | 03/09/2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 13/09/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |
Analysis
EXAM ANALYSIS
The National Defence Academy and Naval Academy (NDA & NA) Examination (I) 2026 was conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on 12 April 2026 in offline/OMR mode across various examination centres in India. The examination consisted of two papers conducted in two shifts: Mathematics in the morning and General Ability Test (GAT) in the afternoon.
Exam Date & Shift Timings
Exam Date: 12 April 2026
Paper I – Mathematics: 10:00 AM to 12:30 PM
Paper II – General Ability Test (GAT): 2:00 PM to 4:30 PM
Mode: Offline (Pen-and-Paper/OMR)
Total Duration: 5 hours
Total Marks: 900
The examination was conducted in two shifts, not multiple daily shifts, because Mathematics and GAT were conducted separately.
Exam Pattern
Mathematics: 120 questions, 300 marks, 2½ hours.
GAT: 150 questions, 600 marks, 2½ hours.
The GAT consisted of English and General Knowledge, with the GK portion covering Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Events. The marking scheme was +2.5 marks and ?0.83 marks for Mathematics and +4 marks and ?1.33 marks for GAT.
Overall Difficulty Level
The overall NDA I 2026 written examination was assessed as Moderate, with some variation among sections. Mathematics was generally Moderate to Difficult and more calculation-intensive, whereas GAT was Moderate overall. Within GAT, English was comparatively easier, while the Science portion of General Knowledge was considered more challenging by many candidates.
Mathematics Analysis
The Mathematics paper was one of the more demanding parts of the examination. Candidates reported that several questions were lengthy, calculation-based and required strong conceptual understanding. Important areas included Algebra, Trigonometry, Calculus, Matrices & Determinants, Coordinate Geometry, Probability, Statistics, Differential Equations, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Vector Algebra, Sequence & Series and Conic Sections.
Difficulty: Moderate to Difficult
Good Attempts: Approximately 45–70 questions, depending on the candidate's accuracy and the analysis source. Some analyses considered around 55–65 a reasonable range.
GAT Analysis
The GAT paper was generally Moderate. The English section was comparatively easier and scoring, whereas the General Knowledge portion included a substantial mix of Science, History, Geography, Polity, Current Affairs and other General Knowledge topics. Science, particularly Physics, Chemistry and Biology, was reported as comparatively difficult by several candidates.
English: Easy to Moderate
General Knowledge: Moderate to Difficult/variable
Overall GAT: Moderate
Good Attempts: Approximately 85–95 questions according to one detailed post-exam analysis.
Subject-Wise GAT Analysis
English: Questions were based on areas such as Grammar, Vocabulary, Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Improvement, Spotting Errors, Fill in the Blanks, Idioms & Phrases, Reading Comprehension and related language skills. The section was considered comparatively scoring.
Physics: Questions tested basic concepts, mechanics, electricity, magnetism, heat, optics and other fundamental areas.
Chemistry: Questions covered basic chemistry, elements, compounds, reactions, acids and bases, metals/non-metals and everyday chemistry.
General Science/Biology: Questions included human biology, living organisms, health, diseases, nutrition and basic biological concepts.
History: Questions were asked from Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, including important events and personalities.
Geography: Major areas included physical geography, Indian geography, climate, rivers, resources and world geography.
Current Events: Questions were based on recent national and international events, sports, awards, appointments, defence and other important current affairs.
Good Attempts
Because NDA I 2026 was conducted in a single national examination date but with two papers, good attempts should be interpreted separately for Mathematics and GAT. Based on post-exam analyses:
Mathematics: approximately 45–70
GAT: approximately 85–95
Overall: approximately 130–160 questions
These are analysis-based estimates and not official UPSC standards. Accuracy is more important than attempting a high number of questions because of the negative marking.
Question Paper & Answer Key
UPSC released the NDA I 2026 provisional answer key on 16 April 2026 for the Mathematics and GAT papers. The answer keys were available for the different question-paper sets, allowing candidates to calculate their probable scores.
Overall Analysis
Overall, NDA I 2026 was a Moderate-level examination, with Mathematics being the more challenging and time-consuming paper and GAT being Moderate overall. English was comparatively easier, while the Science component of GAT was a significant challenge for many candidates. The written examination was held on 12 April 2026, the answer key was released on 16 April 2026, and the written result was declared on 8 May 2026, with 8,826 candidates qualifying for the SSB stage. The official cut-off and final marks will be released by UPSC after completion of the complete NDA I 2026 selection process.
EXAM ANALYSIS
The National Defence Academy and Naval Academy (NDA & NA) Examination (I) 2026 was conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on 12 April 2026 in offline/OMR mode across various examination centres in India. The examination consisted of two papers conducted in two shifts: Mathematics in the morning and General Ability Test (GAT) in the afternoon.
Exam Date & Shift Timings
Exam Date: 12 April 2026
Paper I – Mathematics: 10:00 AM to 12:30 PM
Paper II – General Ability Test (GAT): 2:00 PM to 4:30 PM
Mode: Offline (Pen-and-Paper/OMR)
Total Duration: 5 hours
Total Marks: 900
The examination was conducted in two shifts, not multiple daily shifts, because Mathematics and GAT were conducted separately.
Exam Pattern
Mathematics: 120 questions, 300 marks, 2½ hours.
GAT: 150 questions, 600 marks, 2½ hours.
The GAT consisted of English and General Knowledge, with the GK portion covering Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Events. The marking scheme was +2.5 marks and ?0.83 marks for Mathematics and +4 marks and ?1.33 marks for GAT.
Overall Difficulty Level
The overall NDA I 2026 written examination was assessed as Moderate, with some variation among sections. Mathematics was generally Moderate to Difficult and more calculation-intensive, whereas GAT was Moderate overall. Within GAT, English was comparatively easier, while the Science portion of General Knowledge was considered more challenging by many candidates.
Mathematics Analysis
The Mathematics paper was one of the more demanding parts of the examination. Candidates reported that several questions were lengthy, calculation-based and required strong conceptual understanding. Important areas included Algebra, Trigonometry, Calculus, Matrices & Determinants, Coordinate Geometry, Probability, Statistics, Differential Equations, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Vector Algebra, Sequence & Series and Conic Sections.
Difficulty: Moderate to Difficult
Good Attempts: Approximately 45–70 questions, depending on the candidate's accuracy and the analysis source. Some analyses considered around 55–65 a reasonable range.
GAT Analysis
The GAT paper was generally Moderate. The English section was comparatively easier and scoring, whereas the General Knowledge portion included a substantial mix of Science, History, Geography, Polity, Current Affairs and other General Knowledge topics. Science, particularly Physics, Chemistry and Biology, was reported as comparatively difficult by several candidates.
English: Easy to Moderate
General Knowledge: Moderate to Difficult/variable
Overall GAT: Moderate
Good Attempts: Approximately 85–95 questions according to one detailed post-exam analysis.
Subject-Wise GAT Analysis
English: Questions were based on areas such as Grammar, Vocabulary, Synonyms, Antonyms, Sentence Improvement, Spotting Errors, Fill in the Blanks, Idioms & Phrases, Reading Comprehension and related language skills. The section was considered comparatively scoring.
Physics: Questions tested basic concepts, mechanics, electricity, magnetism, heat, optics and other fundamental areas.
Chemistry: Questions covered basic chemistry, elements, compounds, reactions, acids and bases, metals/non-metals and everyday chemistry.
General Science/Biology: Questions included human biology, living organisms, health, diseases, nutrition and basic biological concepts.
History: Questions were asked from Ancient, Medieval and Modern Indian History, including important events and personalities.
Geography: Major areas included physical geography, Indian geography, climate, rivers, resources and world geography.
Current Events: Questions were based on recent national and international events, sports, awards, appointments, defence and other important current affairs.
Good Attempts
Because NDA I 2026 was conducted in a single national examination date but with two papers, good attempts should be interpreted separately for Mathematics and GAT. Based on post-exam analyses:
Mathematics: approximately 45–70
GAT: approximately 85–95
Overall: approximately 130–160 questions
These are analysis-based estimates and not official UPSC standards. Accuracy is more important than attempting a high number of questions because of the negative marking.
Question Paper & Answer Key
UPSC released the NDA I 2026 provisional answer key on 16 April 2026 for the Mathematics and GAT papers. The answer keys were available for the different question-paper sets, allowing candidates to calculate their probable scores.
Overall Analysis
Overall, NDA I 2026 was a Moderate-level examination, with Mathematics being the more challenging and time-consuming paper and GAT being Moderate overall. English was comparatively easier, while the Science component of GAT was a significant challenge for many candidates. The written examination was held on 12 April 2026, the answer key was released on 16 April 2026, and the written result was declared on 8 May 2026, with 8,826 candidates qualifying for the SSB stage. The official cut-off and final marks will be released by UPSC after completion of the complete NDA I 2026 selection process.
Study Tips
STUDY TIPS
The NDA II Exam conducted by UPSC has two papers – Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test – GAT (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, Probability, Matrices & Determinants, Vectors, 3D, and Calculus. The GAT is divided into English (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension, Usage) and General Knowledge, which includes Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, Polity, Economy, and Current Affairs.
NCERT is the base – Class 10 to 12th NCERT (Maths, Science, History, Geography, Polity).
Maths practice daily – NDA Maths speed + accuracy matter. Solve previous year questions.
GK & Current Affairs – Read daily newspaper + monthly current affairs capsule.
English improvement – Daily 20 vocab words + grammar rules practice.
Mock Tests – At least 1 weekly full-length mock test.
Revision strategy – Revise short notes and formulas regularly.
STUDY PLAN
1 Month Plan (Crash Mode)
Week 1 – Basics & Concept Building
Revise Mathematics basics: Algebra, Trigonometry, Matrices & Determinants.
Start English preparation: Grammar rules, vocabulary, synonyms/antonyms.
Study Physics basics (Motion, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy).
Read daily newspaper for Current Affairs (national & international).
Solve previous year NDA Maths questions topic-wise.
Week 2 – Core Subjects Coverage
Complete remaining Maths topics: Calculus, Coordinate Geometry, Probability.
Cover Chemistry basics (Physical & Inorganic important concepts).
Study Polity & History (Modern History + Constitution basics).
Practice English comprehension passages daily.
Attempt 1 sectional mock test (Maths + GAT separately).
Week 3 – Advanced Practice & Revision
Revise complete Maths formulas and solve mixed practice sets.
Cover Geography & Biology (Indian Geography + Human body basics).
Practice full-length GAT mock tests (English + GK combined).
Analyze mistakes and focus on weak areas.
Revise important defence-related current affairs.
Week 4 – Full Revision & Mock Tests
Attempt 3–4 full-length mock tests (both Maths & GAT).
Revise short notes, formulas, important dates, and concepts.
Practice time management (2.5 hrs Maths + 2.5 hrs GAT).
Focus on accuracy to avoid negative marking.
Maintain fitness routine (important for SSB stage preparation).
3 Months Plan (Balanced)
Month 1
Maths: Daily 2 chapters (Concept + Examples + PYQs)
GAT: NCERT 6–10th Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) + Polity basics
English: 20 new vocab + 1 comprehension daily
Weekly: 1 mock test
Month 2
Maths: Trigonometry, Calculus, Probability, Matrices (practice heavy)
GAT: History (Modern + Freedom), Geography (Physical + Indian)
Current Affairs: Monthly magazine + Defence news
Weekly: 2 mock tests
Month 3
Focus on weak Maths areas + formula revision
GAT: Quick revision + PYQs
English: Grammar & Writing practice
Weekly: 3 mock tests + analysis
6 Months Plan (Ideal & Strong Prep)
Months 1–2 (Foundation Building)
Cover complete NCERT Maths Class 11 & 12 basics
Start Science (NCERT Physics, Chemistry, Bio) + Polity basics
Build English vocab & grammar
Daily: 2–3 hrs Maths + 2 hrs GK/Science + 1 hr English
Months 3–4 (Core Practice)
Advance Maths chapters (Calculus, Vectors, Probability, 3D)
History (Ancient to Modern), Indian Geography, Economy basics
Start solving NDA previous 10 years papers
Weekly: 1–2 mock tests
Months 5–6 (Revision & Mock Test Focus)
Revise formulas, short notes, and PYQs
Current Affairs (last 6–8 months focus)
Mock Tests: 3–4 weekly + detailed analysis
Final 15 days: Full syllabus revision + time management practice
STUDY TIPS
The NDA II Exam conducted by UPSC has two papers – Mathematics (300 marks) and General Ability Test – GAT (600 marks), followed by the SSB Interview (900 marks). The Mathematics paper covers Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, Probability, Matrices & Determinants, Vectors, 3D, and Calculus. The GAT is divided into English (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension, Usage) and General Knowledge, which includes Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, Polity, Economy, and Current Affairs.
NCERT is the base – Class 10 to 12th NCERT (Maths, Science, History, Geography, Polity).
Maths practice daily – NDA Maths speed + accuracy matter. Solve previous year questions.
GK & Current Affairs – Read daily newspaper + monthly current affairs capsule.
English improvement – Daily 20 vocab words + grammar rules practice.
Mock Tests – At least 1 weekly full-length mock test.
Revision strategy – Revise short notes and formulas regularly.
STUDY PLAN
1 Month Plan (Crash Mode)
Week 1 – Basics & Concept Building
Revise Mathematics basics: Algebra, Trigonometry, Matrices & Determinants.
Start English preparation: Grammar rules, vocabulary, synonyms/antonyms.
Study Physics basics (Motion, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy).
Read daily newspaper for Current Affairs (national & international).
Solve previous year NDA Maths questions topic-wise.
Week 2 – Core Subjects Coverage
Complete remaining Maths topics: Calculus, Coordinate Geometry, Probability.
Cover Chemistry basics (Physical & Inorganic important concepts).
Study Polity & History (Modern History + Constitution basics).
Practice English comprehension passages daily.
Attempt 1 sectional mock test (Maths + GAT separately).
Week 3 – Advanced Practice & Revision
Revise complete Maths formulas and solve mixed practice sets.
Cover Geography & Biology (Indian Geography + Human body basics).
Practice full-length GAT mock tests (English + GK combined).
Analyze mistakes and focus on weak areas.
Revise important defence-related current affairs.
Week 4 – Full Revision & Mock Tests
Attempt 3–4 full-length mock tests (both Maths & GAT).
Revise short notes, formulas, important dates, and concepts.
Practice time management (2.5 hrs Maths + 2.5 hrs GAT).
Focus on accuracy to avoid negative marking.
Maintain fitness routine (important for SSB stage preparation).
3 Months Plan (Balanced)
Month 1
Maths: Daily 2 chapters (Concept + Examples + PYQs)
GAT: NCERT 6–10th Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) + Polity basics
English: 20 new vocab + 1 comprehension daily
Weekly: 1 mock test
Month 2
Maths: Trigonometry, Calculus, Probability, Matrices (practice heavy)
GAT: History (Modern + Freedom), Geography (Physical + Indian)
Current Affairs: Monthly magazine + Defence news
Weekly: 2 mock tests
Month 3
Focus on weak Maths areas + formula revision
GAT: Quick revision + PYQs
English: Grammar & Writing practice
Weekly: 3 mock tests + analysis
6 Months Plan (Ideal & Strong Prep)
Months 1–2 (Foundation Building)
Cover complete NCERT Maths Class 11 & 12 basics
Start Science (NCERT Physics, Chemistry, Bio) + Polity basics
Build English vocab & grammar
Daily: 2–3 hrs Maths + 2 hrs GK/Science + 1 hr English
Months 3–4 (Core Practice)
Advance Maths chapters (Calculus, Vectors, Probability, 3D)
History (Ancient to Modern), Indian Geography, Economy basics
Start solving NDA previous 10 years papers
Weekly: 1–2 mock tests
Months 5–6 (Revision & Mock Test Focus)
Revise formulas, short notes, and PYQs
Current Affairs (last 6–8 months focus)
Mock Tests: 3–4 weekly + detailed analysis
Final 15 days: Full syllabus revision + time management practice
General info
OVERVIEW
The National Defence Academy (NDA) Examination is a national-level entrance examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for candidates seeking admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC). The examination is conducted twice a year through NDA & NA (I) and NDA & NA (II). The selection process consists of a Written Examination, followed by the Services Selection Board (SSB) Interview/Intelligence and Personality Test for candidates who qualify the written examination. Candidates recommended by the SSB are required to undergo a medical examination as per the prescribed defence medical standards. Final selection is based on merit, vacancies, eligibility, medical fitness and other conditions prescribed by UPSC.
Particulars | Description |
Exam Full Name | National Defense Academy Exam |
Conducting Authority | Union Public Service Commission |
Admission Purpose | Recuitment into the Army, Airforce & Naval Academy |
Exam Level | National Level Exam |
Application Mode | Online |
Exam Date | 13 September 2026 |
Official Website |
SELECTION PROCESS
The NDA II selection process for admission to the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Indian Naval Academy (INAC) involves the following stages:
Written Examination (900 marks): Scheduled to be conducted on September 13, 2026, it includes two objective MCQ papers: Mathematics (300 marks, 120 questions, 2.5 hours) and General Ability Test (GAT, 600 marks, 150 questions, 2.5 hours). The written examination carries a total of 900 marks, and negative marking is applicable for incorrect answers. Candidates must qualify the written examination by securing the minimum qualifying marks prescribed by UPSC.
SSB Interview (900 marks): Candidates who qualify the written examination are called for the 5-day Services Selection Board (SSB) process, which includes:
Day 1: Screening Test, including Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) Test and Picture Perception & Description Test (PP&DT).
Days 2–4: Psychological Tests, Group Testing Officer (GTO) Tasks and Personal Interview, including various group activities and outdoor tasks.
Day 5: Conference and final recommendation of candidates.
Medical Examination: Candidates recommended by the SSB undergo a Medical Examination to determine their physical and medical fitness according to the prescribed defence medical standards, including applicable height, vision and other physical fitness requirements.
Final Merit List: The final merit is prepared on the basis of the combined marks obtained in the Written Examination and SSB Interview, carrying a total of 1,800 marks, subject to vacancies, eligibility, medical fitness and other prescribed conditions. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, a total of 394 vacancies are available, comprising 370 male and 24 female vacancies. Selected candidates will be allocated to the National Defence Academy (NDA) or Indian Naval Academy (INAC) according to merit, preferences, vacancies and applicable rules.
OVERVIEW
The National Defence Academy (NDA) Examination is a national-level entrance examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for candidates seeking admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC). The examination is conducted twice a year through NDA & NA (I) and NDA & NA (II). The selection process consists of a Written Examination, followed by the Services Selection Board (SSB) Interview/Intelligence and Personality Test for candidates who qualify the written examination. Candidates recommended by the SSB are required to undergo a medical examination as per the prescribed defence medical standards. Final selection is based on merit, vacancies, eligibility, medical fitness and other conditions prescribed by UPSC.
Particulars | Description |
Exam Full Name | National Defense Academy Exam |
Conducting Authority | Union Public Service Commission |
Admission Purpose | Recuitment into the Army, Airforce & Naval Academy |
Exam Level | National Level Exam |
Application Mode | Online |
Exam Date | 13 September 2026 |
Official Website |
SELECTION PROCESS
The NDA II selection process for admission to the National Defence Academy (NDA) and Indian Naval Academy (INAC) involves the following stages:
Written Examination (900 marks): Scheduled to be conducted on September 13, 2026, it includes two objective MCQ papers: Mathematics (300 marks, 120 questions, 2.5 hours) and General Ability Test (GAT, 600 marks, 150 questions, 2.5 hours). The written examination carries a total of 900 marks, and negative marking is applicable for incorrect answers. Candidates must qualify the written examination by securing the minimum qualifying marks prescribed by UPSC.
SSB Interview (900 marks): Candidates who qualify the written examination are called for the 5-day Services Selection Board (SSB) process, which includes:
Day 1: Screening Test, including Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) Test and Picture Perception & Description Test (PP&DT).
Days 2–4: Psychological Tests, Group Testing Officer (GTO) Tasks and Personal Interview, including various group activities and outdoor tasks.
Day 5: Conference and final recommendation of candidates.
Medical Examination: Candidates recommended by the SSB undergo a Medical Examination to determine their physical and medical fitness according to the prescribed defence medical standards, including applicable height, vision and other physical fitness requirements.
Final Merit List: The final merit is prepared on the basis of the combined marks obtained in the Written Examination and SSB Interview, carrying a total of 1,800 marks, subject to vacancies, eligibility, medical fitness and other prescribed conditions. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, a total of 394 vacancies are available, comprising 370 male and 24 female vacancies. Selected candidates will be allocated to the National Defence Academy (NDA) or Indian Naval Academy (INAC) according to merit, preferences, vacancies and applicable rules.
2026 exam
LATEST UPDATE
The official UPSC notification for NDA/NA (I & II) Examination 2026 was released on 20 May 2026, aiming to fill 394 vacancies. The National Defence Academy and Naval Academy (NDA & NA) Examination 2026 is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) twice a year for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC). The NDA & NA (II) 2026 notification was released on 20 May 2026, with the application process open until 9 June 2026, and the written examination is scheduled to be held on 13 September 2026.
The UPSC NDA & NA (II) 2026 Admit Card has not yet been released as of 27 August 2026. The examination is scheduled for 13 September 2026, so the e-Admit Card is expected to be released about one week before the examination, most likely around 6 September 2026. UPSC generally makes the e-Admit Card available on its official website shortly before the examination.
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the e-Admit Cards for the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2026, on September 3, 2026. Candidates appearing for either of these examinations can download their hall tickets from the official UPSC website.
IMPORTANT DATES
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) publishes the NDA & NA examination dates for both sessions through its official examination calendar. The NDA 2026 schedule was announced well in advance, helping candidates plan their preparation effectively. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, the official notification and application form were released on 20 May 2026, and the last date to apply was 9 June 2026. The NDA II 2026 written examination is scheduled to be conducted on 13 September 2026.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 20/05/2026 |
NDA I Appication Period | 20/05/2026 - 09/06/2026 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | 03/09/2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 13/09/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |
VACANCY DETAILS???????
The NDA & NA Examination (II) 2026, as per the official UPSC notification released on May 20, 2026, offers a total of 394 vacancies for admission to the 158th Course of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the 120th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), commencing from July 1, 2027.
Army: 208 vacancies
Navy: 42 vacancies
Air Force: 120 vacancies (92 for Flying Branch, 18 for Ground Duties (Tech), 10 for Ground Duties (Non-Tech))
Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 24 vacancies
Key Notes:
A total of 24 vacancies are reserved for women candidates across the different wings and courses, while the remaining 370 vacancies are for male candidates.
The vacancies are provisional and may be revised depending on the availability of training capacity at the National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy.
The exact branch-wise and gender-wise vacancy distribution, along with eligibility and other conditions, is provided in the official NDA & NA (II) 2026 notification available on the UPSC website.
SALARY STRUCTURE
The salary structure for candidates selected through NDA I follows the 7th Pay Commission guidelines and applies uniformly across the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force wings after the 3-year training period at the National Defence Academy (NDA), followed by service-specific training (1 year for Army at IMA, Navy at INA, and Air Force at AFA). During the NDA training, cadets receive a fixed monthly stipend of Rs.56,100 (Pay Level 10), which covers basic needs and is non-commissioned. Upon successful commissioning (as Lieutenant in Army, Sub-Lieutenant in Navy, or Flying Officer in Air Force), officers start at the same basic pay but with additional allowances, leading to an in-hand salary of approximately Rs.70,000–Rs.1,00,000 initially (varying by posting and DA rates, currently ~50% of basic pay). The structure emphasizes rank progression, with promotions based on service years, performance, and exams. The highest salary reaches Rs. 2,50,000 (fixed) for top ranks like Chief of Army Staff (COAS).
Rank-Wise Salary Structure (Basic Pay as per 7th CPC)
The basic pay is determined by Pay Levels in the Pay Matrix. Military Service Pay (MSP) of Rs.15,500 is added for ranks from Lieutenant to Brigadier. Dearness Allowance (DA) is revised periodically (currently ~50%, so ~Rs.28,050 on starting basic pay).
NDA Salary – Army, Navy, Air Force | |
NDA Posts or Ranks | Salary of NDA Officer (Per Month) |
Stipend during the training of the candidates in IMA | INR 56,100/ |
Lieutenant | INR 56,100/- to INR 1,77, 500/- |
Captain | INR 61,300/- to 01,93,900/- |
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LATEST UPDATE
The official UPSC notification for NDA/NA (I & II) Examination 2026 was released on 20 May 2026, aiming to fill 394 vacancies. The National Defence Academy and Naval Academy (NDA & NA) Examination 2026 is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) twice a year for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC). The NDA & NA (II) 2026 notification was released on 20 May 2026, with the application process open until 9 June 2026, and the written examination is scheduled to be held on 13 September 2026.
The UPSC NDA & NA (II) 2026 Admit Card has not yet been released as of 27 August 2026. The examination is scheduled for 13 September 2026, so the e-Admit Card is expected to be released about one week before the examination, most likely around 6 September 2026. UPSC generally makes the e-Admit Card available on its official website shortly before the examination.
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the e-Admit Cards for the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2026, on September 3, 2026. Candidates appearing for either of these examinations can download their hall tickets from the official UPSC website.
IMPORTANT DATES
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) publishes the NDA & NA examination dates for both sessions through its official examination calendar. The NDA 2026 schedule was announced well in advance, helping candidates plan their preparation effectively. For NDA & NA (II) 2026, the official notification and application form were released on 20 May 2026, and the last date to apply was 9 June 2026. The NDA II 2026 written examination is scheduled to be conducted on 13 September 2026.
Events | Dates |
NDA I Notification | 20/05/2026 |
NDA I Appication Period | 20/05/2026 - 09/06/2026 |
NDA I Admit Card Release | 03/09/2026 |
NDA I Exam Date | 13/09/2026 |
NDA I Result Declaration | To Be Updated Soon |
VACANCY DETAILS???????
The NDA & NA Examination (II) 2026, as per the official UPSC notification released on May 20, 2026, offers a total of 394 vacancies for admission to the 158th Course of the National Defence Academy (NDA) and the 120th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), commencing from July 1, 2027.
Army: 208 vacancies
Navy: 42 vacancies
Air Force: 120 vacancies (92 for Flying Branch, 18 for Ground Duties (Tech), 10 for Ground Duties (Non-Tech))
Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 24 vacancies
Key Notes:
A total of 24 vacancies are reserved for women candidates across the different wings and courses, while the remaining 370 vacancies are for male candidates.
The vacancies are provisional and may be revised depending on the availability of training capacity at the National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy.
The exact branch-wise and gender-wise vacancy distribution, along with eligibility and other conditions, is provided in the official NDA & NA (II) 2026 notification available on the UPSC website.
SALARY STRUCTURE
The salary structure for candidates selected through NDA I follows the 7th Pay Commission guidelines and applies uniformly across the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force wings after the 3-year training period at the National Defence Academy (NDA), followed by service-specific training (1 year for Army at IMA, Navy at INA, and Air Force at AFA). During the NDA training, cadets receive a fixed monthly stipend of Rs.56,100 (Pay Level 10), which covers basic needs and is non-commissioned. Upon successful commissioning (as Lieutenant in Army, Sub-Lieutenant in Navy, or Flying Officer in Air Force), officers start at the same basic pay but with additional allowances, leading to an in-hand salary of approximately Rs.70,000–Rs.1,00,000 initially (varying by posting and DA rates, currently ~50% of basic pay). The structure emphasizes rank progression, with promotions based on service years, performance, and exams. The highest salary reaches Rs. 2,50,000 (fixed) for top ranks like Chief of Army Staff (COAS).
Rank-Wise Salary Structure (Basic Pay as per 7th CPC)
The basic pay is determined by Pay Levels in the Pay Matrix. Military Service Pay (MSP) of Rs.15,500 is added for ranks from Lieutenant to Brigadier. Dearness Allowance (DA) is revised periodically (currently ~50%, so ~Rs.28,050 on starting basic pay).
NDA Salary – Army, Navy, Air Force | |
NDA Posts or Ranks | Salary of NDA Officer (Per Month) |
Stipend during the training of the candidates in IMA | INR 56,100/ |
Lieutenant | INR 56,100/- to INR 1,77, 500/- |
Captain | INR 61,300/- to 01,93,900/- |
Major | INR 69,400/- to 02,07,200/- |
Lieutenant Colonel | INR 01,21,200/- to 02,12,400/- |
Colonel | INR 01,30,600/- to 02,15,900/- |
Brigadier | INR 01,39,600/- to 02,17,600/- |
Major General | INR 01,44,200/- to 02,18,200/- |
Lt. General HAG Scale | INR 01,82,200/- to 02,24,100/- |
HAG+ Scale | INR 02,05,400/- To 02,24,400/- |
VCOAS/ Army Cdr/ Lt Gen (NFSG) | INR 02,25,000/- Fixed |
COAS | INR 02,50,000/- Fixed |
ALLOWANCES & PERKS
NDA Allowances to the Cadets | |
Allowances to NDA Officers | Amount Payable |
Dearness Allowance | Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as are applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time. |
Kit Maintenance Allowances | INR 20,000/- Annually with Dress Allowances |
Para Allowance | Rs 10,500/- Per Month |
Special Forces Allowance | Rs 25,000/- Per Month |
Para Jump Instructor Allowance | Rs 10,500/- Per Month |
Project Allowance | Rs 3,400/- Per Month |
Para Reserve Allowance | Rs 2,625/- Per Month |
Technical Allowance (Tier-I) | Rs 3,000/- Per Month |
Technical Allowance (Tier-II) | Rs 4,500/- Per Month |
HOW TO APPLY
To apply for the NDA & NA (II) 2026 examination, candidates had to submit their applications online through the official UPSC online application portal from 20 May 2026 to 9 June 2026. The application process involved One-Time Registration (OTR)/account creation, filling in personal and educational details, selecting preferences, uploading the required documents and images, selecting examination centres, paying the applicable examination fee and submitting the final application. Since the application period has now closed, candidates should check the official UPSC website regularly for the admit card and other examination updates.
Registration: Visit the official website of UPSC and access the online application portal. Candidates should read the instructions carefully before proceeding with the application.
Filling up the NDA Application Form: Candidates need to enter their personal, educational, contact and other required details in the application form. They should carefully verify all information before final submission and keep their registration/application details safely for future reference.
Basic Details: Candidates have to provide details such as name, date of birth, gender, nationality, category, parents' details, address, educational qualification and other required information.
Preferences: Candidates need to indicate their preferences for the Army, Navy, Air Force and Naval Academy as applicable. Candidates should carefully fill in their preferences because allocation is made according to the applicable merit, preferences, vacancies and other conditions.
Upload of Prescribed Documents & Images: Candidates are required to upload the prescribed photograph, signature and other required documents/information in the format and specifications mentioned in the official notification. Images or documents not meeting the prescribed requirements may result in rejection of the application.
Choose Examination Centre: Candidates need to select their preferred examination centre/city from the available options while completing the application form. Allotment is subject to the availability and conditions specified by UPSC.
Pay the Examination Fee: Candidates required to pay the examination fee can make the payment through the prescribed online payment methods available on the UPSC application portal.
Submit the Application Form: After completing all sections, uploading the required documents and making the payment, candidates should carefully review the complete application and submit it finally. Candidates should retain a copy/printout of the submitted application and payment confirmation for future reference.
Application Fees
For General/OBC (Male Candidates): ?100/-
For SC/ST Candidates: Nil
For All Female Candidates: Nil
For Sons of JCOs/NCOs/Other Ranks: Nil, as per the applicable exemption specified in the official notification.
Note: The NDA & NA (II) 2026 application window was open from 20 May 2026 to 9 June 2026. The application process is now closed. Candidates should refer only to the official UPSC notification for the applicable fee exemptions, payment methods and document specifications.
EXAM CENTERS
According to the UPSC NDA & NA (II) 2026 notification, the written examination is scheduled for 13 September 2026 and is conducted at designated centres across India. Candidates selected their preferred examination city while submitting the application, subject to availability.
The NDA II 2026 examination centres include:
AGARTALA
AGRA
AHMEDABAD
AIZAWL
AJMER
ALIGARH
ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND)
ALWAR
ANANTHAPURAMU (ANDHRA PRADESH)
CHHATRAPATI SAMBHAJINAGAR [AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)]
BAREILLY
BENGALURU
BHOPAL
BHUBANESWAR
BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH)
CHANDIGARH
CHENNAI
COIMBATORE
CUTTACK
DEHRADUN
DELHI
DHARAMSHALA
DHARWAD
DISPUR
FARIDABAD
GANGTOK
GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR
GAYA
GHAZIABAD
GORAKHPUR
GURUGRAM
GWALIOR
HISAR
HYDERABAD
IMPHAL
INDORE
ITANAGAR
JABALPUR
JAIPUR
JAMMU
JODHPUR
JORHAT
KANNUR
KANPUR
KARGIL
KOCHI
KOHIMA
KOLKATA
KOZHIKODE (CALICUT)
LEH
LUCKNOW
LUDHIANA
MADURAI
MANDI (HIMACHAL PRADESH)
MEERUT
MUMBAI
MYSURU
NAGPUR
NASIK
NAVI MUMBAI
PANAJI (GOA)
PATNA
SRI VIJAYA PURAM (PORT BLAIR)
PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
PUDUCHERRY
PUNE
RAIPUR
RAJKOT
RANCHI
SAMBALPUR
SHILLONG
SHIMLA
SILIGURI
SRINAGAR
SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)
SURAT
THANE
THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
TIRUCHIRAPALLI
TIRUPATI
UDAIPUR
VARANASI
VELLORE
VIJAYAWADA
VISAKHAPATNAM
HANUMAKONDA (WARANGAL URBAN)
ADMIT CARD
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the NDA II 2026 Admit Card for the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2026. The e-Admit Card was released on September 3, 2026, and candidates can download it online through the official UPSC portal.
The NDA II 2026 examination will be conducted on September 13, 2026 (Sunday) across India. Candidates must carry a printed copy of the e-Admit Card along with the specified photo identity card to the examination centre.
Candidates can follow the below-mentioned steps to download admit card for the NDA exam:
Step 1- Visit the official website.
Step 2- On the home page, find ‘E-admit card National Defence Academy Examination,’ link.
Step 3- The login page opens in a new tab.
Step 4- Read the instructions carefully before downloading.
Step 5- Agree to the terms and conditions.
Step 6- Select any of the options - registration number or roll number.
Step 7- If candidates select the registration number option, they need to enter the registration number, date of birth, and random image.
Step 8- If candidates select the roll number option, they need to enter the roll number, date of birth, and random image.
Step 9- Click the ‘Submit’ button. Download the admit card and take its printout.
RESULTS
The NDA & NA (II) 2026 written examination result has not been released yet. The examination itself is scheduled to be conducted on 13 September 2026, so the result will be declared after the written examination. UPSC has not announced an exact result date in the official examination notification.
The steps to check the NDA Results are given below:
Step 1- Go to the official website.
Step 2- NDA result opens on a new page in PDF form.
Step 3- Candidates can search their roll numbers and names in the result PDF through Ctrl+F.
Step 4- If their roll numbers and names are in the result PDF, this means candidates have qualified the exam.
Step 5- Download the result PDF and take its printout.
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